The Bears have struggled to find stability at the center position, a problem that dates back to Justin Fields tenure when Sam Mustipher held the role. Last season, Coleman Shelton filled the spot, but with his short-term deal expiring, it’s clear the Bears need an upgrade rather than bringing him back. That’s where Drew Dalman could be a game-changer.
Dalman, the 26-year-old center for Atlanta last season, earned an impressive 84.8 grade from Pro Football Focus and is ranked as the 22nd-best free agent overall. Despite playing only nine games in 2024 due to an ankle injury, Dalman allowed just nine total pressures, with the most sacks he’s ever surrendered in a single season being two. He also committed only three pre-snap penalties last year. Over his career, Dalman has logged more than 1,300 pass-blocking snaps, making him an experienced and reliable option—not a rookie project. According to PFF, the ideal landing spot for the former 4th round pick is Chicago.
“With Coleman Shelton’s short-term deal manning the middle of this offensive line set to expire, new Bears head coach Ben Johnson may opt to replicate the success he found in Detroit with All-Pro center Frank Ragnow.”
Contract Outlook
The Bears have significant cap space this offseason, which positions them well to pursue Dalman and other upgrades. A realistic contract could be in the range of three years, worth $35–$38 million, making Dalman one of the highest-paid centers in the league. A deal at $38 million would average about $12.5 million per year, potentially including incentives. This type of investment aligns with Ben Johnson’s recent comments on The Herd with Colin Cowherd, where he mentioned the “player acquisition stage is right around the corner.”
This move would fill a critical need for the Bears and solidify the offensive line—a priority for their new head coach and quarterback Caleb Williams.
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